2014년 1월 27일 월요일

TB0-118 덤프 Tibco 인증

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시험 번호/코드: TB0-118
시험 이름: Tibco (Architecting Composite Applications and Services with TIBCO)
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Q&A: 118 문항
업데이트: 2014-01-26

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NO.1 Which three characteristics define a Service Component Architecture component type? (Choose
three.)
A.the implementation technology of the component
B.the services that are provided by the component
C.the properties of the component
D.the binding types of the component
E.the references that are made by the component
Answer:BCE

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NO.2 Which two statements are true about processes defined with the Business Process Execution
Language for Web Services (WS-BPEL)? (Choose two.)
A.Process faults in WS-BPEL always return SOAP faults.
B.WS-BPEL processes are always initiated by Web Service calls.
C.Data mappings in a WS-BPEL process require an external service invocation.
D.All functionality used by a WS-BPEL process must be provided in the form of Web Services.
Answer:BD

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NO.3 Which two statements are true about namespaces in the XSD standard? (Choose two.)
A.Namespaces are intended as descriptive information for human users.
B.Changes to namespaces are commonly used to identify major version changes in an XSD.
C.An XML file can be validated with two XSDs, which differ by namespace but have the same element
definitions.
D.Two XSD files, which differ by namespace but with the same elements definitions, define different
schemas.
Answer:BD

Tibco   TB0-118최신덤프   TB0-118

NO.4 In which format does TIBCO Designer store project trusted certificates?
A. PKCS12
B. PKCS7
C. KeyStore
D. PEM
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which three aspects of design must be defined by the architect using a Total Architecture approach?
(Choose three.)
A.system components
B.security policies
C.communication paths and communication mechanisms
D.interaction with human participants
E.use of Common Data Model schemas in service interfaces
Answer:ACD

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NO.6 What are three things that can be managed via runtime policies? (Choose three.)
A.service granularity
B.request logging
C.service ownership
D.design versioning
E.access control
F.usage auditing
Answer:BEF

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NO.7 What are two essential elements of a reference architecture? (Choose two.)
A.a concrete deployment model
B.an abstracted architecture pattern
C.a common data model
D.an abstracted process model
Answer:BD

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NO.8 Requirements call for a standards-compliant messaging solution.
Which TIBCO product best meets this requirement?
A.TIBCO BusinessEvents
B.TIBCO ActiveMatrix Service Bus
C.TIBCO ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks
D.TIBCO ActiveMatrix Service Grid
E.TIBCO Enterprise Messaging Server
Answer:A

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NO.9 Which two statements reflect the realities about using common data models? (Choose two.)
A.A common data model provides a single representation of each concept that is used everywhere.
B.The goal of common data models is to minimize the number of representations of each concept.
C.The use of comprehensive data structures that combine many concepts simplifies interface design.
D.Enterprises typically require more than one representation for each concept.
Answer:BD

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NO.10 You are deploying a Web Service that is bound to a JMS transport on multiple TIBCO ActiveMatrix
nodes.
What can you do to achieve service scalability?
A.reference a JMS topic in the JMS Destination Configuration resource template
B.reference a JMS queue in the JMS Destination Configuration resource template
C.configure a routed messaging topology with a multi-hop zone
D.configure queue-to-queue bridging without specifying a selector
Answer:C

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NO.11 When wrapping a backend system, what does a Web Service always provide that the native system
interface does not?
A.standardized service operation semantics
B.an HTTP-based interface
C.a common data model
D.access independent of implementation technology
Answer:D

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NO.12 Which two composition styles can be used to define a composite application? (Choose two.)
A.orchestration
B.integration
C.choreography
D.collaboration
Answer:AC

Tibco   TB0-118   TB0-118

NO.13 Which three statements are true about a WSDL instance? (Choose three.)
A.It describes the location of a service, but not the individual operations.
B.It does not require concrete communications endpoints
C.A message may contain more than one part, such as a purchase order and an invoice.
D.An action supported by a service is known as its binding.
E.A port type (interface) is an abstract set of operations.
Answer:BCE

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NO.14 When a single instance of a service provider is no longer capable of handling the volume of activity due
to the business process complexity required to handle each request, which two statements are true?
(Choose two.)
A.XML compression reduces the load on the service providers.
B.Scalability can be improved using technology such as HTTP load balancers.
C.The feature should be re-architected as it is not a good candidate for Web Services.
D.Using a JMS-based transport can help improve scalability.
Answer:BD

Tibco   TB0-118최신덤프   TB0-118   TB0-118최신덤프

NO.15 Which three categories of information should be found in a domain information model? (Choose
three.)
A.concepts
B.detailed attributes
C.attribute datatypes
D.identifiers
E.relationship multiplicity
Answer:ADE

Tibco인증   TB0-118   TB0-118인증   TB0-118자료

NO.16 What is the root element of a TIBCO ActiveMatrix Service Bus design?
A.SCA component
B.SCA composite
C.mediation flow
D.Spring implementation type
Answer:D

Tibco   TB0-118   TB0-118기출문제

NO.17 A TIBCO ActiveMatrix Service Bus-based order fulfillment application makes outbound requests to an
inventory service. Based on the geography and quantity of the order, the request must be routed to one of
a number of different specialized inventory service instances.
What are two possible ways to route the requests in ActiveMatrix? (Choose two.)
A.configure the order fulfillment application to reference the different inventory service instances
B.use XPath to create conditional references from the order fulfillment composite to each inventory
service instance
C.create a Mediation Flow containing route tasks and route cases
D.create a dynamic binding to the inventory service and use XPath to compute the routing
Answer:CD

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NO.18 What is an important practical benefit of service discovery?
A.It allows programs to dynamically discover new features as needed.
B.It allows internal development groups to find functionality that can be reused.
C.It allows services to discover potential consumers using the UDDI protocol.
D.It allows governance groups to discover functionality that could become a service.
Answer:B

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NO.19 Which two interaction patterns are supported in TIBCO ActiveMatrix Service Bus? (Choose two.)
A.Synchronous In-Out with SOAP/JMS
B.Asynchronous In-Out with SOAP/HTTP
C.Synchronous Out-In with XML over JMS
D.Asynchronous Out-Only with XML over JMS
Answer:AD

Tibco기출문제   TB0-118   TB0-118   TB0-118

NO.20 Which two statements are true with respect to the granularity of a service? (Choose two.)
A.Fine-grained services are likely to be usable in many places, so you can ignore their access overhead.
B.Fine-grained service benefits may be outweighed by their access overhead.
C.Coarse-grained services are likely to be reusable because they encapsulate a lot of functionality
D.Coarse-grained services are less likely to be reusable because they encapsulate a lot of functionality.
Answer:BD

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시험 번호/코드: OG0-081
시험 이름: The Open Group (TOGAF 8 Certification for Practitioners)
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Q&A: 201 문항
업데이트: 2014-01-26

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NO.1 1.A.2: Typically, business goals and drivers have already been established and need only be validated.
If this is not true, what process should be followed?
A. Resequence the project to occur later in the overall program
B. The team should work with the project sponsor to create a set of goals and objectives and to validate
those goals and objectives with top management
C. The project team should create a set of placeholder goals and objectives
D. Place the project on hold until a suitable set of business goals and objectives can be defined by top
management
E. Benchmark with a similar, noncompeting organization, and adopt their best practices for business
goals and objectives
Answer: B

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NO.2 4.1.4: The Architecture Continuum _____ the Solutions Continuum.
A. drives
B. is driven by
C. is designed to satisfy
D. is based on
E. guides and supports the evolution of
Answer: E

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NO.3 2.5: Who usually initiates a Request for Architecture Work?
A. the sponsoring organization
B. the architecture organization
C. the CIO/CTO
D. the architecture governance board
E. senior management
Answer: A

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NO.4 1.G.1: What are the key inputs to Phase G - Implementation Governance?
A. reusable solution building blocks
B. statement of architecture work
C. request for architecture work
D. all of these items
E. impact analysis
Answer: D

The Open Group   OG0-081   OG0-081

NO.5 1.P.3: Which of the following statements about architecture principles is most true?
A. Architecture principles must be tailored to the requirements of a given architecture project
B. Architecture principles are intended to be enduring and seldom amended
C. Architecture principles cannot transcend the organization's business strategies and objectives
D. Executive Management can define principles as a means of enforcing compliance to its policies and
rules
E. Due to their sensitive nature, architecture principles should be kept confidential
Answer: B

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NO.6 5.2: The U.S. Department of Defense C4ISR Architecture framework (now DODAF) provides an
integrated architecture model with three views. Which of these sets of views is provided?
A. logical, physical, financial
B. operational, technical, systems
C. logical, physical, operational
D. strategic, tactical, operational
E. strategic, systems, operations
Answer: B

The Open Group   OG0-081기출문제   OG0-081덤프

NO.7 6.1.1: Which of the following is not true about the nature of governance?
A. All of these are characterisitics of governance.
B. Provides guidance on the effective use of resources to achieve the organization's strategic objectives
C. Ensure that all actions and related decisions are available to be examined by authorized parties
D. All decisions taken, processes used and their implementation will not be allowed to create unfair
advantage to any one particular party.
E. All involved parties have a commitment to adhere to procedures, processes and authority structures
established by the organisation.
Answer: A

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NO.8 2.23: The final version of an Impact Analysis should contain all of the following except _____.
A. prioritized projects
B. enhanced budget forecasts
C. time ordered sequencing
D. Implementation recommendations
E. measures of effectiveness
Answer: B

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NO.9 1.R.1: When can new requirements be added to the requirement management repository?
A. during each phase of the ADM
B. at the Architecture Vision phase
C. anytime during Phases A through D
D. only upon completion of a business scenario
E. when submitting the Request for Architecture Work
Answer: A

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NO.10 1.D.2: The TOGAF Technical Reference Model _____.
A. is intended as an example and should be tailored to the organization's needs
B. must be used "as is" for developing comprehensive architecture models
C. contains several industry specific frameworks
D. is intended to contain the Enterprise Continuum
E. contains only solution building blocks
Answer: A

The Open Group   OG0-081   OG0-081   OG0-081 pdf   OG0-081

NO.11 1.E.2: During Phase E - Opportunties and Solutions, a gap analysis can be used to compare the ____
between the as-is and the to-be architecture.
A. requirements
B. Solution Building Blocks
C. Architecture Building Blocks
D. business functions
E. standards
Answer: D

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NO.12 6.2.2: In TOGAF's Architecture Governance organizational structure, which group is chiefly
responsible for deployment and operations?
A. domain architects
B. IT service management
C. Chief Information Officer/Chief Technology Officer
D. program management office
E. technical support
Answer: B

The Open Group   OG0-081   OG0-081   OG0-081

NO.13 1.H.1: As the ADM cycle is completed for a given architecture program, the architecture staff is
responsible for ____.
A. Project planning
B. Final appraisal of the implemented architecture
C. Ongoing monitoring of business and technology changes related to the architecture work
D. Implementation Governance
E. Internal marketing of the solution
Answer: C

The Open Group   OG0-081   OG0-081

NO.14 1.F.1: What is the objective of Phase F?
A. To establish the IT Governance framework that will be used to direct deployment.
B. To sort the implementation projects into priority order for implementation and migration.
C. To implement change management processes that will be used to manage the implementation
projects.
D. To validate the architecture vision.
E. All of these tasks
Answer: B

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NO.15 3.1.1: Which of the following would be a good example of an infrastructure application?
A. Virtual Private Network
B. System and Network Management system
C. e-Mail
D. Office (desktop) software
E. All of these
Answer: E

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NO.16 1.CA.6: Which of the following would be a potential downstream use of the qualitative criteria for the
application architecture
A. managing code quality
B. generating service level agreements
C. regression testing
D. gap analysis
E. All of the above
Answer: B

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NO.17 2.18: A Technical Architecture Report should contain all of these items except ___.
A. requirements traceability analysis
B. project impact analysis
C. technology architecture models
D. technical specification for each building block
E. gap analysis report
Answer: B

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NO.18 1.CA.1: All of the following elements are required in the Application Architecture Baseline Document
except ____.
A. architecture models of the candidate system(s)
B. business and organization units supported
C. precedent and successor applications
D. owner(s) or business unit(s) responsible for requirements
E. hardware and software platforms used
Answer: A

The Open Group덤프   OG0-081시험문제   OG0-081덤프   OG0-081   OG0-081

NO.19 3.1.3: In the high level Technical Reference Model ____.
A. all of these
B. the application directly communicates to the outside environment
C. the application communicates with the application platform through the communications infrastructure
interface
D. it is possible to analyze performance crtieria
E. the communication infrastructure is very diverse
Answer: E

The Open Group   OG0-081   OG0-081   OG0-081   OG0-081

NO.20 1.A.5: During the Architecture Vision phase, what would be a typical source of enterprise wide
constraints?
A. The results of a detailed gap analysis
B. The project plan for the given architecture activity
C. External benchmarks
D. The organization's business and architecture principles
E. The architecture contract
Answer: D

The Open Group자격증   OG0-081   OG0-081자료   OG0-081최신덤프

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NO.1 What must be performed before creating an empty concatenated volume in a new disk group?
A. encapsulate the volume and assign a disk group
B. initialize the disks and assign them to a disk group
C. create an empty subdisk in the disk group and assign the volume
D. in VEA, select Actions -> Volume -> Disk Group -> New
Answer: B

Symantec기출문제   250-240   250-240

NO.2 You have used the vxprint command with the appropriate options to save information about the volume
layouts on your system. Now, you want to use vxprint to provide useful information that can be used later
as input for the vxmake command to help rebuild your volume configurations. Which option must be used
with vxprint?
A. -r
B. -t
C. -a
D. -m
Answer: D

Symantec   250-240인증   250-240자료   250-240

NO.3 In order to resize an existing volume and its file system in Volume Manager while it remains online,
the file system must be _____.
A. in the bootdg disk group
B. checked before the process
C. shared across disk groups
D. mounted during the process
Answer: D

Symantec   250-240   250-240   250-240   250-240기출문제   250-240

NO.4 In this volume layout the mirroring occurs below the striping or concatenation in order to mirror each
column of the stripe or each chunk of the concatenation. This type of layout is called a layered volume.
What is the correct RAID level for a volume layout that combines mirroring with striping or concatenation?
A. RAID-1+0
B. RAID-0+1
C. RAID-5
D. RAID-2
Answer: A

Symantec   250-240자료   250-240인증   250-240   250-240

NO.5 Which two virtual objects are components of a Volume Manager volume? (Choose two.)
A. VM disk
B. subdisk
C. plex
D. physical disk
Answer: BC

Symantec   250-240   250-240   250-240최신덤프   250-240

NO.6 What are three advantages of a concatenated volume layout? (Choose three.)
A. removes size restrictions
B. provides load balancing
C. better usage of space
D. simplifies administration
Answer: ACD

Symantec   250-240 dump   250-240   250-240   250-240

NO.7 You have a disk group named testdg, which you want to rename to engdg. To rename the disk group
from the command line, you __________.
A. must destroy the disk group and then re-create the disk group using the new name
B. must use the vxdg change command, which performs a deport and an import in a single step
C. use vxdg deport followed by vxdg import, and the volumes are automatically started in the disk group
after the import
D. use vxdg deport followed by vxdg import, then you must manually start volumes in the disk group by
using the vxvol command
Answer: D

Symantec   250-240기출문제   250-240인증   250-240자격증

NO.8 When using the New Volume Wizard in VEA, what are the two layout options available to create a
layered volume? (Choose two.)
A. Concatenated Mirrored
B. Striped Mirrored
C. Mirrored Striped
D. Mirrored Concatenated
Answer: AB

Symantec dump   250-240   250-240최신덤프   250-240 dump   250-240 pdf

NO.9 Which command is used to move the contents of the volumes from one disk to another?
A. vxremove
B. vxevac
C. vxdg move
D. vxdg evac
Answer: B

Symantec기출문제   250-240덤프   250-240 dumps

NO.10 The Volume View window in VEA displays the characteristics of the volumes on the disks. After
selecting a volume or disk group in VEA, how is the Volume View window displayed?
A. Tools -> Volume View
B. Tools -> Volume -> View
C. Actions -> Volume -> View
D. Actions -> Volume View
Answer: D

Symantec인증   250-240최신덤프   250-240   250-240기출문제   250-240

NO.11 When using Volume Manager, what is considered the correct definition for RAID-5?
A. Combines mirroring with striping or concatenation where the mirroring occurs below the striping or
concatenation in order to mirror each column of the stripe or each chunk of the concatenation
B. Refers to mirroring where data from one disk is duplicated on another disk to provide redundancy and
enable fast recovery.
C. Refers to simple concatenation or striping where disk space is combined sequentially from two or more
disks or striped across two or more disks. RAID-0 does NOT provide data redundancy.
D. Refers to a striped layout that includes the calculation of parity information and the striping of that
parity information across the disks.
Answer: D

Symantec기출문제   250-240   250-240   250-240   250-240   250-240 dump

NO.12 Which three are characteristics of a disk group? (Choose three.)
A. collection of Volume Manager disks
B. eases the use of resources in a high availability environment
C. allows Volume Manager objects to span multiple disk groups
D. represents a management and configuration boundary
Answer: ABD

Symantec자료   250-240자격증   250-240최신덤프   250-240자격증   250-240기출문제

NO.13 Which three plex types are valid in Volume Manager? (Choose three.)
A. complete
B. partial
C. log
D. sparse
E. partition
Answer: ACD

Symantec자격증   250-240기출문제   250-240   250-240 pdf

NO.14 What is the virtual object that Volume Manager uses to represent the structured or ordered collection of
subdisks?
A. volume
B. plex
C. vmdisk
D. disk group
Answer: B

Symantec   250-240 pdf   250-240

NO.15 Which two commands can be used to remove a mirror from a volume? (Choose two.)
A. vxassist remove mirror
B. vxdisk
C. vxremove mirror
D. vxplex
Answer: AD

Symantec   250-240   250-240인증   250-240덤프

NO.16 You want to remove the datavol volume from the datadg disk group by using the command line. A file
system is currently mounted on the volume. You are sure that you do NOT need the data in the volume.
What is the appropriate sequence of steps to remove the volume and avoid system errors?
A. remove the volume by using the vxremove command (The file system will be unmounted automatically,
and the filesystem table file will be automatically updated to remove the entry for the file system.)
B. unmount the file system, then remove the volume using vxassist remove, and then manually edit the
file system tablefile to remove the entry for the file system
C. remove the volume by using the vxassist remove command (The file system will be unmounted
automatically;however, you must then manually edit the file system table file to remove the entry for the
file system.)
D. unmount the file system, then remove the volume using vxremove, and then manually edit the file
system table file to remove the entry for the file system
Answer: B

Symantec   250-240   250-240   250-240 dumps   250-240시험문제
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NO.17 You are analyzing the output of the vxdisk alldgs list command. There are no entries in the DISK and
GROUPcolumns; however, you see "online" in the output of the STATUS column. Which three explain the
"online" status of the disk in this scenario? (Choose three.)
A. The disk is in the free disk pool.
B. The disk has been initialized or encapsulated.
C. The disk is NOT currently assigned to a disk group.
D. The disk is currently deported on another system.
Answer: ABC

Symantec   250-240   250-240덤프   250-240 dump   250-240 dump   250-240

NO.18 What are three advantages of a properly configured traditional mirrored volume layout? (Choose
three.)
A. improved reliability and availability
B. decreases the need for Volume Manager disks
C. improved read performance
D. fast recovery through logging
Answer: ACD

Symantec인증   250-240   250-240   250-240 pdf

NO.19 You want to track changes to files and directories in a file system to improve performance of a search
engineapplication. Which VERITAS File System feature do you enable?
A. the intent log
B. the file change log
C. the object location table file
D. the quotas file
Answer: B

Symantec pdf   250-240인증   250-240자격증   250-240

NO.20 Which area of a disk is used by Volume Manager to store information such as disk headers,
configuration copies, and kernel logs?
A. the public region
B. the private region
C. the virtual region
D. the CDS region
Answer: B

Symantec pdf   250-240   250-240덤프   250-240   250-240 dumps

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시험 번호/코드: 250-622
시험 이름: Symantec (Implementation of DP Solutions for UNIX using NBU 5.0)
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NO.1 Which command is used to install NetBackup on a UNIX client where rsh is not available?
A. bpcd_install
B. update_clients
C. bpclient_install
D. install_client_files
Answer: D

Symantec덤프   250-622 dumps   250-622 pdf   250-622인증

NO.2 You are installing the NetBackup for SQL Agent. What must be current for communication to take
place between NetBackup and the SQL database?
A. ODBC
B. TCP/IP
C. Internet Explorer
D. Windows Service Pack
Answer:A

Symantec   250-622기출문제   250-622
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NO.3 A moderately used database server must be configured as a NetBackup client. The database
application is custom built and is not covered by a NetBackup database agent. The server is in production
around-the-clock.Backups must not interrupt production, and open files must be backed up. The DB data
exists on SAN attacheddisks, though available disk space is scarce. Which of the following backup
methods would best fit this scenario?
A. Copy-on-write snapshot
B. Mirror snapshot
C. VERITAS Snapshot Provider enabled backup
D. Block level incremental backups
Answer:A

Symantec   250-622 dump   250-622인증

NO.4 You are installing NetBackup Database agents into an environment with a high level of change control.
You are using all of the relevant Database agents.Which database forces you to restart the database
though it does not necessarily require rebooting the whole system?
A. Oracle 8i
B. MSSQL 2000
C. Exchange 2000
D. Microsoft Access
Answer:A

Symantec dump   250-622 dump   250-622인증   250-622

NO.5 You are preparing for the installation of NetBackup on a Solaris system. This will be a Shared Storage
Optionenvironment that consists of one robotic library, two SCSI tape devices, one bridge, and one Fibre
Channelswitch.Which four files do you review to ensure a valid Target and LUN configuration? (Choose
four.)
A. st.conf
B. vm.conf
C. sg.conf
D. sg.links
E. /etc/system
F. devlink.tab
Answer: ACDF

Symantec pdf   250-622 pdf   250-622   250-622

NO.6 Corporate change control policies require that you have a back out plan before undertaking any
application upgrades. Which two steps could be included in your back out plan for a NetBackup upgrade?
(Choose two.)
A. uninstall the upgraded version of NetBackup and reinstall the older version
B. reinstall the OS and then reinstall the original version of NetBackup
C. use bprecover to recover the preupgrade catalogs from tape
D. use bprestore to recover the preupgrade catalogs from tape
Answer:AC

Symantec자격증   250-622인증   250-622덤프   250-622

NO.7 What are three recommendations for NetBackup media server installation? (Choose three. )
A. You should remove any other vendor backup software.
B. At least one tape drive should be available for backup operations.
C. All NetBackup servers should recognize and be recognized by their client systems.
D. You should make certain that you have a server of a supported hardware type running a supported
version of an OS.
Answer: ACD

Symantec   250-622   250-622최신덤프

NO.8 You need to add a number of Windows servers from another department to your Solaris NetBackup
master server. The system administrator for these systems has given you a Domain Administrator
account and permissionto install the client, but he will not be available to help you. He has not given you
access to the computer room where the systems are physically located.What is the supported method for
installing the client?
A. share the installation CD on the network, log into the systems via a Remote Terminal session, map the
CD andrun setup.exe
B. from the Administration client on the master server select all the remote clients in Host Properties,
right-click,and select Remote Client Install
C. log in to any Windows system on the domain as the domain administrator, run Launch.exe on the
installation CD and install to network clients
D. remote installation to Windows clients is not allowed from a UNIX Master; the system administrator will
haveto give you physical access to the clients.
Answer: C

Symantec덤프   250-622시험문제   250-622   250-622자료

NO.9 Which two methods can be used to install NetBackup license keys? (Choose two.)
A. when prompted during the NetBackup software installation
B. after the NetBackup software installation by executing get_license_key
C. after the NetBackup software installation by executing add_license_key
D. after the NetBackup software installation by clicking the Support tab on the NetBackup Administration
Console
Answer:AB

Symantec   250-622   250-622최신덤프

NO.10 Which two steps are required during the initial installation of a NetBackup master server? (Choose
two.)
A. create volume pools
B. define storage units
C. set up policy schedules
D. enter the server license
E. specify the NetBackup server type
Answer: DE

Symantec   250-622 dump   250-622   250-622인증

NO.11 You have been given a NetBackup 5.0 configuration to implement that contains the following operating
systemlevels.Which three are supported by NetBackup? (Choose three. )
A. Microsoft Windows 98
B. Sun Solaris 9
C. IBM OS390
D. HP HP/UX 11i
E. RedHat AS 3.0
Answer: BDE

Symantec   250-622   250-622인증   250-622   250-622기출문제

NO.12 In preparation for a master server upgrade, you want to launch a backup of the NetBackup catalog.
Which two methods accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. in the GUI, right-click your configured catalog backup policy, and select Manual Backup
B. in the GUI, right-click on Catalog and select Backup NetBackup Catalog
C. from the command line, run bpbackup with appropriate switches
D. from the command line, run bpbackupdb with appropriate switches
Answer: BD

Symantec   250-622인증   250-622자료

NO.13 Which script is executed to uninstall a VERITAS Maintenance Pack from a UNIX master server?
A. Vrts_pack.uninstall
B. Vrts_patch.uninstall
C. Vrts_pack.install and select Uninstall
D. Vrts_patch.install and select Uninstall
Answer:A

Symantec   250-622자료   250-622 pdf   250-622인증   250-622인증   250-622

NO.14 Which two statements are true about a media server upgrade installation from version 4.5 to version
5.0? (Choose two.)
A. All clients must be on 5.0 if their media server is on 5.0.
B. All master and media servers must be on NetBackup 5.0.
C. The media servers must be on 4.5 or 5.0 if the clients are on 4.5.
D. The master server can be upgraded to 5.0, and media servers can remain at 4.5.
Answer: CD

Symantec   250-622자료   250-622 dumps

NO.15 NetBackup has been installed in a SAN with a shared robot that contains ten drives. However, only four
drives appear as selectable and there are only four unique drive paths in the OS. Which two commands
are used to correct this problem? (Choose two.)
A. tpconfig
B. sg.build
C. tpautoconf
D. sg.install
E. shared_drive_notify
Answer: BD

Symantec   250-622최신덤프   250-622 dumps   250-622   250-622자격증

NO.16 Which three NetBackup processes are running after a successful master server installation? (Choose
three. )
A. bprd
B. bptm
C. bpjobd
D. bpdbm
E. bpdm
Answer: ACD

Symantec pdf   250-622   250-622   250-622 dump   250-622자료

NO.17 Which two statements are true about upgrading an existing NetBackup installation to NetBackup 5.0?
(Choose two.)
A. All master and media servers must be on the same revision level.
B. All clients must be on the same revision level as their media servers.
C. A media servers revision level may be one level higher than its clients revision levels.
D. The master server's revision level may be one level higher than the media servers revision level.
Answer: CD

Symantec기출문제   250-622 dumps   250-622

NO.18 Which two steps are performed to set up a scratch pool? (Choose two.)
A. create a volume pool.
B. add a line in bp.conf: SCRATCH_POOL = SCRATCH
C. create a file called SCRATCH_POOL and type SCRATCH in it
D. mark the checkbox called "Scratch Pool" in the NetBackup Administration Console
Answer:AD

Symantec   250-622   250-622   250-622   250-622   250-622

NO.19 You have an MSSQL database that you need to add to your environment. Which three items do you
need toknow before backups can be configured? (Choose three. )
A. the version of MSSQL being used
B. the kind of authentication being used
C. the directories in which the database files are located
D. the backup retentions needed by the DBA
Answer: ABD

Symantec pdf   250-622   250-622 dump

NO.20 Which three determine tape usage when preparing for a NetBackup deployment? (Choose three. )
A. tape type
B. backup window
C. number of fulls
D. number of file systems
E. number of incrementals
Answer:ACE

Symantec   250-622시험문제   250-622   250-622

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NO.1 Which three summaries can be found on the Job Monitor's System Summary view? (Choose three.)
A. device and media summary
B. alerts summary
C. licensing summary
D. installed patch summary
E. job summary
Answer: ABE

Symantec dump   251-312   251-312

NO.2 Using the silent mode method, how can a backup administrator push-install Backup Exec Remote
Agent for Windows Systems simultaneously to multiple machines?
A. create a command file that reads a number from a .txt file
B. create a command file that reads remote computer names from a .txt file
C. use the Push Install Wizard to add the number of simultaneous installs
D. use the Push Install Wizard to add the parameters for the silent installation
Answer: B

Symantec자료   251-312   251-312   251-312최신덤프

NO.3 Which three versions of Microsoft SQL does Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers support?
(Choose three.)
A. Microsoft SQL Server Desktop Edition (MSDE) 2000
B. Microsoft SQL 2005 Express Edition
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 SP2
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 SP3a or later
E. Microsoft SQL Server 7.0
F. Microsoft SQL 2005
Answer: BDF

Symantec기출문제   251-312   251-312   251-312최신덤프

NO.4 A medium-sized paper company with several remote offices deploys Symantec Backup Exec 12 for
Windows Servers Central Admin Server Option (CASO) in their data center. The company's SLA requires
that the backup environment be restored to an alternate location in the event of a data center outage.
Which CASO catalog location option meets this company's SLA?
A. Centralized Catalog
B. Distributed Catalog
C. Replicated Catalog
D. Exported Catalog
Answer: C

Symantec dumps   251-312   251-312최신덤프   251-312기출문제

NO.5 Which two statements are accurate regarding full backups and copy backups? (Choose two.)
A. Full backups and copy backups of the same resource include the same data.
B. Full backups and copy backups are different names for the exact same backup method.
C. Full backups and copy backups can be configured to reset the archive bit of backed up files.
D. Full backups can reset the archive bit of backed up files; copy backups are unable to reset the archive
bit.
E. Copy backups can reset the archive bit of backed up files; full backups are unable to reset the archive
bit.
Answer: AD

Symantec dumps   251-312   251-312 pdf

NO.6 Which media set property defines the amount of time that data can be added to a piece of media?
A. Append Period
B. Overwrite Protection Period
C. Retention Period
D. Media Update Period
Answer: A

Symantec덤프   251-312 pdf   251-312   251-312 pdf   251-312

NO.7 Refer to the exhibit.
Annual accounting history must be archived for 120 days and marketing history must be archived for 90
days.
Which setting allows reporting for marketing and accounting history?
A. change Keep alert history to 90 days
B. change Keep job logs to 120 days
C. change Keep job history selection for keep job history to match current OPP
D. change Keep job history for selected number of days to 120
Answer: C

Symantec덤프   251-312시험문제   251-312덤프

NO.8 What are two benefits of enabling Database Maintenance in Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows
Servers? (Choose two.)
A. deletes aged reports
B. exports the database to XML
C. removes alert history
D. decreases the size of the database
E. opens the database for sharing
Answer: CD

Symantec   251-312자격증   251-312최신덤프   251-312   251-312덤프

NO.9 Which compression type produces the least network traffic in a multi-server backup environment?
A. compression with de-duplication
B. software compression
C. hardware compression
D. compression with encryption
Answer: B

Symantec   251-312인증   251-312   251-312   251-312 pdf

NO.10 A global company must use a "follow-the-sun" backup strategy, which means that the backup servers
are constantly performing backups. The SLA requires that both DHCP and Active Directory remain
available.
Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers component is required in order to meet the SLA?
A. Data Protection Option
B. Advanced Open File Option
C. Central Admin Server Option
D. Agent for Enterprise Vault Option
Answer: B

Symantec pdf   251-312 pdf   251-312   251-312 pdf

NO.11 Which two alert category types can be disabled? (Choose two.)
A. Warning alerts
B. Attention Required alerts
C. Error alerts
D. E-mail Failure alerts
E. Informational alerts
Answer: AE

Symantec   251-312자료   251-312자료   251-312   251-312

NO.12 A web-based retailer's mission-critical servers must be online constantly, providing zero downtime in
which to run a backup.
Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers component is required in order to meet the SLA?
A. Advanced Disk-based Backup Option
B. Continuous Protection Server Option
C. Volume Shadow Copy Services Option
D. Central Admin Server Option
Answer: B

Symantec시험문제   251-312   251-312인증   251-312   251-312

NO.13 What does the Backup Exec Environment Check utility verify to ensure that the installation process can
complete successfully? (Choose two.)
A. Is a previous version of Backup Exec installed?
B. Is there enough storage space for disk-based backups?
C. Is an SMTP Server available?
D. Are there Microsoft SQL database account privileges?
E. Are there sufficient logon account privileges?
Answer: AE

Symantec   251-312   251-312 pdf   251-312

NO.14 Which two Calendar Schedule settings can you use to schedule a job to run on the first and fifteenth of
every month? (Choose two.)
A. Specific Dates
B. Recurring Week Days
C. Recurring Days of the Month
D. Day Interval
E. Time Window
Answer: AC

Symantec   251-312   251-312기출문제   251-312자료

NO.15 Refer to the Exhibit.
Which method provides the most current restore point?
A. tape replication
B. tape backup
C. system rebuild
D. system deduplication
Answer: B

Symantec   251-312시험문제   251-312

NO.16 Which technology provides the most efficient Recovery Point Objective (RPO)?
A. Remote Administration Option
B. Intelligent Disaster Recovery Option
C. Backup Exec System Recovery
D. Continuous Protection Server
Answer: D

Symantec   251-312   251-312   251-312   251-312 dump

NO.17 Which database application is included with Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers?
A. Microsoft SQL 2005 Express
B. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 SP2
C. Microsoft SQL Desktop Edition 2000
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2005
Answer: A

Symantec자격증   251-312 dump   251-312   251-312

NO.18 A single tape-drive robotic library is attached to the Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers
(Backup Exec) media server but fails to display in the Backup Exec Devices window. The library is in the
correct location under the Robotic Libraries tree, but instead of listing the drive underneath it, there is a
listing of Unknown Drive. The drive name is listed under Stand-alone Drives.
What must be done to solve this problem?
A. Restart the Backup Exec Server service and scan for new devices in Windows Device Manager.
B. Power down the Backup Exec Server and the attached robotic library, then power up the robotic library
before powering up the Backup Exec Server.
C. Run the Backup Exec Device Configuration Wizard and drag the correct drive name to the position
under the robotic library.
D. Because the robotic library is unserialized and not supported by Backup Exec, replace the robotic
library with a supported robotic library.
Answer: C

Symantec   251-312   251-312 pdf   251-312   251-312 pdf   251-312 pdf

NO.19 Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers component manages devices and media?
A. Advanced Device and Media Manager
B. Media Operations Manager
C. Enterprise Media Manager
D. Advanced Tape Device Manager
Answer: A

Symantec   251-312   251-312   251-312덤프

NO.20 Which two factors define a backup Service Level Agreement (SLA)? (Choose two.)
A. Recovery Point Objective
B. Recovery Time Objective
C. Recovery Method
D. Recovery Retention Period
E. Recovery Priority Objective
Answer: AB

Symantec인증   251-312   251-312인증   251-312자료   251-312인증

NO.21 A financial institution has a two-hour backup window and is required to restore individual e-mails
within 20 minutes if their Microsoft Exchange Server fails.
Which Service Level Agreement (SLA) meets the Recovery Point Objective (RPO) and Recovery Time
Objective (RTO) requirements?
A. RTO 2 hours, RPO 20 minutes, Granular Recovery Technology enabled
B. RTO 20 minutes, RPO 2 hours, Granular Recovery Technology enabled
C. RTO 20 minutes, RPO 2 hours, Individual E-mail Recovery enabled
D. RTO 2 hours, RPO 20 minutes, Individual E-mail Recovery enabled
Answer: B

Symantec   251-312   251-312시험문제   251-312자료

NO.22 Which three statements are true about the attributes of a device pool? (Choose three.)
A. The All Available Drives device pool can be deleted.
B. A drive can belong to more than one device pool.
C. A device pool can contain different types of drives.
D. Device priority can be set on a device pool.
E. Multiple backup jobs can be targeted to the same device pool.
Answer: BCE

Symantec   251-312자격증   251-312자료   251-312최신덤프

NO.23 Which two Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Server agents/options support remote installation
from an existing media server? (Choose two.)
A. Active Directory Recovery Agent
B. Advanced Open File Option
C. Desktop and Laptop Option
D. Library Expansion Option
E. Shared Storage Option
Answer: BC

Symantec   251-312   251-312인증   251-312시험문제   251-312자격증

NO.24 Refer to the exhibit.
A backup administrator must recover all Microsoft Word documents (.doc) created after January 1, 2005
from the F:\CEO directory, including subfolders.
How is this accomplished?
A. enter F:\CEO for the Path; enter *.doc for the File; select Include subdirectories; enter 1/1/2005 for
From box; enter today's date for To box; select Include for Type
B. enter F:\CEO for the Path; enter *.* for the File; enter 1/1/2005 for the From Box; leave the To box blank;
select Include for Type
C. enter F:\*.* for the Path; enter \CEO\*.doc for the File; select Include subdirectories; enter 1/1/2005 for
the From box; enter today's date for the To box; select Exclude for Type
D. enter \* for the Path; enter *.doc for the File; select Include subdirectories; enter 1/1/2005 for the From
box; enter today's date for the To box; select Include for Type
Answer: A

Symantec   251-312   251-312 dumps

NO.25 A large enterprise provides a six-hour backup window at night, but requires failed systems to be
restored immediately.
Which SLA meets the Recovery Point Objective (RPO) and Recovery Time Objective (RTO)
requirements?
A. RPO 0, RTO 0
B. RPO 6 hours, RTO 6 hours
C. RPO 6 hours, RTO 0
D. RPO 0, RTO 6 hours
Answer: C

Symantec dumps   251-312 pdf   251-312   251-312

NO.26 Refer to the exhibit.
Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers option is required to manage all backups from the
data center?
A. Shared Storage Option
B. Active Directory Recovery Option
C. Central Admin Server Option
D. Executive Desktop Option
Answer: A

Symantec dumps   251-312   251-312

NO.27 An attempt to install the Remote Agent for Linux and UNIX Servers on a UNIX server fails.
Which log can be reviewed to determine the cause of the installation failure?
A. /var/tmp/vxif/installralus/installralus.log
B. /var/logs/ralus/installralus.log
C. /install/symantec/logs/ralus.log
D. /usr/openv/symantec/logs/install.log
Answer: A

Symantec최신덤프   251-312   251-312   251-312자료

NO.28 Which account enables Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers to access resources for
backup?
A. administrative
B. logon
C. service
D. domain
Answer: B

Symantec덤프   251-312   251-312

NO.29 Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers (Backup Exec) utility can be used to change
the user account listed in the Backup Exec services?
A. Services
B. BEServices
C. ServicesMgr
D. BEDIAG
Answer: C

Symantec자료   251-312   251-312   251-312

NO.30 Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers agent/option provides Microsoft Virtual Server
support?
A. Shadow Copy
B. Virtual Machine
C. System State
D. Remote Agent
Answer: D

Symantec   251-312   251-312   251-312   251-312 dump

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시험 번호/코드: ST0-47W
시험 이름: Symantec (Veritas NetBackup 6.5 for Windows (STS))
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NO.1 On which two types of Veritas NetBackup 6.5 servers can the Enterprise Media Manager (EMM) be
installed? (Select two.)
A. Master Server
B. Media Server
C. Administration Server
D. Media and Device Server
Answer: AB

Symantec   ST0-47W인증   ST0-47W   ST0-47W기출문제   ST0-47W

NO.2 A Veritas NetBackup 6.5 client system requests a user-initiated backup by sending a request to port
13720 of the configured Master Server system.
Which Veritas NetBackup service or process receives this request?
A. bpdbm
B. bprd
C. nbpem
D. nbjm
Answer: B

Symantec기출문제   ST0-47W시험문제   ST0-47W최신덤프   ST0-47W   ST0-47W자격증

NO.3 What is OpenStorage?
A. the new Symantec physical disk array
B. the software layer that interfaces with any type of disk
C. the Veritas NetBackup 6.5 service that manages disks
D. a new term for a Veritas NetBackup 6.5 Disk Storage Unit
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which two cause the Policy Execution Manager to modify the Next Due Jobs worklist? (Select two.)
A. when Enterprise Media Manager initiates a request to modify the worklist
B. when a backup policy is added, modified, or removed
C. when a job is initiated and completed
D. when a user initiated backup is requested
Answer: BC

Symantec   ST0-47W   ST0-47W   ST0-47W   ST0-47W pdf   ST0-47W

NO.5 Which statement is true about Veritas NetBackup 6.5 Data Classifications?
A. They control the execution of backups.
B. They schedule client backups.
C. They can be used to bias the deletion of backup images.
D. They are service level agreements.
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-47W   ST0-47W인증

NO.6 An administrator wants to back up a VMware virtual machine using the VMware Consolidated Backup
(VCB)interface.
Which component is required to enable VCB backups?
A. Database and Application Pack
B. Enterprise Client
C. Desktop and Laptop Option
D. Workstation Client
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-47W   ST0-47W자격증

NO.7 Which two disk-based features support data de-duplication? (Select two.)
A. SAN Disk
B. Flexible Disk
C. OpenStorage Disk
D. PureDisk Storage
Answer: CD

Symantec자료   ST0-47W   ST0-47W   ST0-47W   ST0-47W

NO.8 What is the purpose of the nbproxy process?
A. It facilitates communication between the Master Server and the client.
B. It provides communication between multi-threaded processes and PBX.
C. It facilitates communication between the Master Server and the Media Server.
D. It provides communication between multi-threaded processes and single-threaded processes.
Answer: D

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NO.9 The customer runs the Images on Media report to obtain a list of backup images that are on the tape
volume XYZ001.
Which NetBackup Master Server service/process maintains the catalog from which this report is derived?
A. NetBackup Jobs Database Manager
B. NetBackup Service Layer
C. NetBackup Job Manager
D. NetBackup Database Manager
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-47W   ST0-47W시험문제

NO.10 Where can you find and access a full list of Veritas NetBackup 6.5 product documentation?
A. under the Help tab in any window of the NetBackup NOM console
B. in the Help (Windows) or hlp (UNIX/Linux) directories on the Master Server
C. online on the Symantec Corporation Support website
D. on any host that has NetBackup component(s) loaded, through the global Help function
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-47W인증   ST0-47W

NO.11 What is it called when an administrator sets up a set of disk volumes that can then be assign to
specific Media Servers, Policies, or Storage Units?
A. OpenStorage
B. Disk Pool
C. Volume Pool
D. Disk Storage Unit
Answer: B

Symantec dump   ST0-47W   ST0-47W기출문제

NO.12 What are three options for locating and viewing Veritas NetBackup 6.5 manuals and other
documentation? (Select three.)
A. NetBackup 6.5 media set (the CD-ROMs and/or DVD-ROMs)
B. documentation files in /opt/openv/goodies/hlp (UNIX/Linux)
C. hard copy documentation provided with NetBackup 6.5
D. online on the Symantec Corporation Support website
E. help files in C:\Program Files\Veritas\NetBackup\goodies\help (Windows)
Answer: ACD

Symantec최신덤프   ST0-47W   ST0-47W   ST0-47W   ST0-47W

NO.13 The nbproxy process communicates and queries which Veritas NetBackup 6.5 component?
A. Enterprise Media Manager
B. Database Manager
C. Robotic Control Service
D. Automatic Volume Recognition daemon
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-47W인증   ST0-47W   ST0-47W자격증   ST0-47W   ST0-47W

NO.14 What are two benefits of using OpenStorage to manage and control the use of disk-based storage by
Veritas NetBackup 6.5? (Select two.)
A. A Storage Unit can be configured to fail over from a Disk Pool to tape.
B. Multiple Media Servers can access and share a Disk Pool.
C. A Data Pool can be created, which allows load balancing of both tape and disk.
D. Load balancing can be performed across the Media Servers for a Disk Pool.
Answer: BD

Symantec   ST0-47W   ST0-47W dump   ST0-47W

NO.15 What is the purpose of the nbdb_ping command in Veritas NetBackup 6.5?
A. to determine if a Media Server has connectivity to the EMM database
B. to check the health and status of the Sybase ASA database
C. to create a roll-back checkpoint in the NetBackup Binary database
D. to run a simple handshake test between the Master and all Media Servers
Answer: B

Symantec기출문제   ST0-47W   ST0-47W pdf

NO.16 For Veritas NetBackup 6.5, what is a backup image?
A. a complete copy of an existing backup to tape media (from a disk staging unit or tape media)
B. the subset of NetBackup 6.5 catalog metadata that describes and precisely locates the data from one
client
C. all backup data that is backed up from one client in a single stream during a specific backup session
D. a full backup of the data from one client, plus the Bare Metal Restore system image from that same
client
Answer: C

Symantec pdf   ST0-47W   ST0-47W자료   ST0-47W시험문제

NO.17 In a customer's Veritas NetBackup 6.5 environment, the Master Server is host A, the Enterprise Media
Manager (EMM) Server is host B, the only configured Media Server is host C, and Client systems are host
D through host Z. The customer has encountered a problem performing a standard restore operation of
host D from the tape on which the backup was written and was directed by Symantec support to enable
debug logging for the bpbrm process.
On which Veritas NetBackup 6.5 system would this debug log be enabled?
A. NetBackup Master Server (host A)
B. NetBackup EMM (host B)
C. NetBackup Media Server (host C)
D. NetBackup Client (host D)
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which three features are included in the Standard Infrastructure capacity tier? (Select three.)
A. Library Based Tape Drive
B. OpenStorage Option
C. Vault Option
D. Shared Storage Option
E. Flexible Disk Option
Answer: ACD

Symantec   ST0-47W   ST0-47W   ST0-47W dumps

NO.19 In Veritas NetBackup 6.5, what is a backup policy?
A. a set of associations defining which Backup Creation Wizard will run with which clients
B. a schedule defining when a given backup will execute its full or incremental sessions
C. a list of parameters that define the details of how a given backup will be performed
D. a list of clients to be backed up and how long the backup can run
Answer: C

Symantec pdf   ST0-47W   ST0-47W   ST0-47W

NO.20 Which two components/options of Veritas NetBackup 6.5 include the Bare Metal Restore (BMR) Client?
(Select two.)
A. Standard Client
B. Bare Metal Restore Client
C. Enterprise Client
D. Desktop and Laptop Client
E. Database and Application Pack
Answer: AC

Symantec   ST0-47W   ST0-47W최신덤프

NO.21 Which feature of Veritas NetBackup 6.5 allows backup data to be encrypted at no additional cost?
A. Media Server Encryption
B. NDMP Encryption
C. Client Encryption
D. EMM Server Encryption
Answer: C

Symantec기출문제   ST0-47W시험문제   ST0-47W인증   ST0-47W

NO.22 Which two are internal databases used by Veritas NetBackup 6.5? (Select two.)
A. NDMP File database
B. Image database
C. Topology database
D. EMM database
E. Encrypted Media database
Answer: BD

Symantec   ST0-47W자료   ST0-47W   ST0-47W덤프

NO.23 An administrator wants to use the capacity-based licensing model. There are 50 clients, each with
50Gb of data that must be backed up. Ten of the clients are database servers.
What is the correct specification for determining the license configuration?
A. 5 Front End Terabytes, 40 Client Licenses, 10 Application and Database Packs
B. 1 Enterprise Server, 40 Client Licenses, 10 Application and Database Packs
C. 2.5 Front End Terabytes, 50 Client Licenses, 10 Application and Database Packs
D. 5 Back End Terabytes, 50 Client Licenses, 10 Application and Database Packs
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-47W   ST0-47W dumps   ST0-47W dump

NO.24 Which two purchased options of Veritas NetBackup 6.5 enable the additional features found in the
Enterprise Disk Foundation? (Select two.)
A. Enterprise Client Option
B. Advanced Vault Option
C. VCB Integration Option
D. OpenStorage Option
E. Flexible Disk Option
Answer: DE

Symantec기출문제   ST0-47W자료   ST0-47W   ST0-47W

NO.25 A Veritas NetBackup 6.5 environment uses a multi-tiered architecture.
Which system functions as the first tier?
A. Media Server
B. NetBackup Operations Manager (NOM) Server
C. Enterprise Client
D. Master Server
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-47W   ST0-47W   ST0-47W자료

NO.26 Which two statements are true about the PBX communication facility used in Veritas NetBackup?
(Select two.)
A. PBX is used when legacy (pre-6.x) processes need to communicate with new (6.x) NetBackup
processes.
B. PBX is used for all tape library command streams in NetBackup 6.5 and above.
C. PBX is used for NetBackup 6.0 and above for all interprocess communication.
D. PBX is used for all disk array snapshot facility command streams in NetBackup 6.5 and above.
Answer: AC

Symantec   ST0-47W   ST0-47W   ST0-47W인증   ST0-47W

NO.27 The backup of a client is not running at the expected time, based upon a specific backup policy and
schedule.
Which Veritas NetBackup 6.5 service/process is responsible for the worklist that contains the entry for this
job and for the initiation of the job, based upon the 'due' time of the job?
A. NetBackup Policy Execution Manager
B. NetBackup Job Manager
C. NetBackup Jobs Database Manager
D. NetBackup Backup and Restore Manager
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-47W자격증   ST0-47W   ST0-47W   ST0-47W

NO.28 An environment already has two robots configured, and the NetBackup Administration Console is being
used to configure a new IBM TLD-type robot. Which name is given to the new robot by default?
A. TLD(2)
B. ROBOT_3
C. TLD(3)
D. IBM.TLD.3
Answer: A

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NO.29 The backup of a particular client system fails with a status code 49 - 'Client did not start'.
For which process do you need to create and check the debug log?
A. bptm
B. bprd
C. bpbkar
D. bpdbm
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-47W자료   ST0-47W자격증   ST0-47W인증   ST0-47W dumps   ST0-47W

NO.30 What are two features of the Flexible Disk Option? (Select two.)
A. shared disk
B. de-duplication
C. replication
D. advanced disk
Answer: AD

Symantec   ST0-47W   ST0-47W

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Symantec ST0-074 덤프

Symantec ST0-074인증시험을 패스하고 자격증 취득으로 하여 여러분의 인생은 많은 인생역전이 이루어질 것입니다. 회사, 생활에서는 물론 많은 업그레이드가 있을 것입니다. 하지만ST0-074시험은Symantec인증의 아주 중요한 시험으로서ST0-074시험패스는 쉬운 것도 아닙니다.

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시험 번호/코드: ST0-074
시험 이름: Symantec (Symantec Mgmt Platform 7.0 with Notification Server (STS))
당신이 구입하기 전에 시도
일년동안 무료 업데이트
100% 환불보장약속
100% 합격율 보장
Q&A: 99 문항
업데이트: 2014-01-26

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NO.1 How does Notification Server handle inventory and event data after reaching the Event Queues?
A. Client Message Dispatcher -> DataLoader -> OLEDB -> CMDB
B. DataLoader -> Client Message Dispatcher -> CMDB
C. Client Message Dispatcher -> NSE Processor -> CMDB
D. DataLoader -> Client Message Dispatcher -> XML -> CMDB
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which service monitors the event queue?
A. Dispatcher Service
B. Receiver Service
C. Notification Service
D. SQL Service
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the source of the information in the Resource Manager?
A. Configuration Management Database
B. Altiris data classes
C. SQL Server Master database
D. Configuration menu
Answer: A

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NO.4 How is resource scoping implemented?
A. By granting the permissions to appropriate Organizational Views and Groups to a security role.
B. By including the appropriate filters and Organizational Views and Groups in a target's rules.
C. By replacing the filters and Organizational Views and Groups in a target with appropriate secure
collections.
D. By creating multiple Organizational Views and Groups, each containing the appropriate subset of
resources.
Answer: A

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NO.5 How are permissions assigned to resources in Notification Server 7?
A. Security Accounts Management (SAM)
B. Organizational Views
C. Access Control List (ACL)
D. Active Directory
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which pair contains Notification Server Event (NSE) queues?
A. Large and Small
B. Priority and Express
C. Fast and Slow
D. Default and System
Answer: C

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NO.7 What Symantec Management system feature is used to off load processing from a Symantec
Management Platform?
A. Site Server
B. Hierarchy
C. Replication
D. Software Management Framework
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which Notification Server 7 process parses the Notification Server Event (NSE) into SQL Statements?
A. DataLoader
B. Dispatcher
C. Event Router
D. Event Queues
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which two troubleshooting tools are installed with the Symantec Management Platform? (Choose two.)
A. Altiris Log Viewer
B. Altiris Profiler
C. Remote Altiris Agent Diagnostics
D. Microsoft Perfmon
E. WireShark Network Protocol Analyzer
Answer: AB

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NO.10 What will occur if a resource is added to a second organizational group when it already belongs to
another organizational group within the same organizational view?
A. A duplicate resource will be created and given a new Globally Unique Identifier (GUID).
B. The resource will be removed from the first organizational group and placed in the second.
C. The resource will be listed twice in any target that includes either organizational group.
D. A resource association record will be created that links the two organizational groups.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which Altiris component is used to move processing off of the Notification Server?
A. Package Server
B. Task Server
C. Site Server
D. PXE Server
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which two items can be stored in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)? (Choose two.)
A. Information related to the configuration of managed computers
B. An inventory of installed applications on managed computers
C. Software packages to install applications on managed computers
D. Symantec Management Platform core application settings
E. Settings and configurations for the ASP.NET web application
Answer: AB

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NO.13 What troubleshooting tool is used to analyze SQL queries and .NET code blocks running in the
Notification Server and associated processes?
A. Altiris Log Viewer
B. Altiris Profiler
C. Microsoft Perfmon
D. Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio
Answer: B

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NO.14 If you have multiple Notification Servers in your environment how many CMDBs are required?
A. One CMDB for each Notification Server
B. One CMDB for all Notification Servers
C. One CMDB for all Symantec Management Consoles
D. One CMDB for each Symantec Management Console
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which item is true when migrating from Notification Server 6 to Notification Server 7?
A. Notification Server 6 and Notification Server 7 can co-exist on the same server
B. Notification Server 6 and Notification Server 7 can co-exist on the same database
C. Additional SQL, operating system, and Notification Server licenses are required
D. .NET 3.5, SQL Server 2005, and Windows 2003 must be installed for the migration to continue
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which feature characterizes the centralized management model?
A. A single IT management team
B. Language barriers between sites
C. A large company with subsidiaries
D. Several data centers
Answer: A

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NO.17 What must be enabled for a collection of Notification Servers to share common configuration settings
and data?
A. Hierarchy Feature
B. Inventory Forwarding
C. Client Policy Files
D. Site Maintenance Feature
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which server role will conflict with the Notification Server?
A. Terminal Server
B. PXE Server
C. Domain Controller
D. FTP Server
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which Symantec Management system feature is used to reduce Total Cost of Ownership (TCO), that
is, increase the efficiency of a single IT administrator?
A. Site Server
B. Hierarchy
C. Task Service
D. Software Management Framework
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which feature characterizes the decentralized management model?
A. Autonomous groups within your organization
B. A common maintenance schedule
C. A single data center
D. Limited number of remote sites
Answer: A

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